Thursday, February 4, 2010

Anyone care to comment about Jesus' most famous false prophecy?

Jesus tells them he will return within the lifetime of some of them.


Matthew 16:27, 28


';For the Son of Man shall come in the glory of his Father, with his angels; and then shall he reward every man according to his works.


Verily I say unto you, there be some standing here that will not taste of death til they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom.';





Some church folks have tried to get around this by saying he was talking about the transfiguration -- but the transfiguration was a vision of Jesus with Moses and Elias.


(Jesus himself said it was a vision. Matthew 17:9.)





Seeing Jesus shine with Moses and Elias is far different from seeing Jesus coming with his kingdom.





See also Mark 9:1 and Luke 9:27


and Matthew 24:29,30,31,34





(Where Jesus says a generation will not pass before ';all will be fulfulled'; including stars falling from the sky and his return accompanied by angels -- Some church folks try to say ';generation'; doesn't mean generation.)


.Anyone care to comment about Jesus' most famous false prophecy?
He was desperate to be seen as the messiah. He had no fulfilled the prophecies at all, so his way of making them see that he was indeed the messiah was promising to come back in thier lifetime to prove that he was.





But he didn't. THey weren't fulfilled and until they are, he isn't the messiah. ';Close'; doesnt' really cut it with this kind of thing.Anyone care to comment about Jesus' most famous false prophecy?
As with prophecies of any religion, when they fail to be fulfilled, believers re-interpret them in other ways, rather than do the logical thing and abandon belief in the prophecy.





They have put Christ's second coming further into the future, and when it continued to fail, they just pushed it further again into the future. Something else they do is rationalise events as fulfilling a prophecy by twisting its meaning whichever way fits.
How about the Ascension, for Jesus coming into his Kingdom? Why should the other part (';shall come in the glory of his Father, with his angels; and then shall he reward every man . . . .';) necessarily need to take place simultaneously? I imagine time is different when you're outside it.





Keep in mind, I'm not a Bible scholar or theologist. Pure conjecture.
1. jesus was lying


2. jesus is god


3. god was lying


4. lying is a sin


5. jesus is a sinner





John told everyone to repent because the kingdom of god is at hand and that the end was nigh, well, that was 2000 years ago.
I'm rather amused by the Tyre ';prophecy';. The one that declared that the city of Tyre would be torn down and ';never'; be rebuilt. As in forever.





Bad news. Not only was the city not destroyed, Tyre is still there today.
I think John is still alive, - somewhere.





While John was banished to the island of Patmos, - his death was never adequately recorded.
Generation refers to the age of Pisces.


Agree with all the above answers.
Well it took God 40 years to get Moses through the desert....I guess he isn't very good at directions. I'm sure he is just lost.
they can't explain it because as you can see it is all wrong.
the kingdom of God came at pentecost
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tuVeVTYSd鈥?/a>
Question: ';What did Jesus mean when He said, ';this generation will not pass';?';





Answer: This quote of Jesus in regards to the end times is found in Matthew 24:34, Mark 13:30, and Luke 21:32. Jesus said, ';Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.'; The key to understanding what Jesus means is understanding the context; that is, understanding the verses that are surrounding verse 34, but especially the verses prior to verse 34. In Matthew 24:4-31, Jesus is speaking of events that have not yet happened. The generation of people living when those events occur is the generation that Jesus speaks of ';not passing'; until He returns. Jesus had already told those living during His first time on earth that the kingdom had been taken from them (Matthew 21:43). Therefore, it is imperative that Matthew 24-25 be seen as speaking of a future time and that the word generation is referring to the people alive when the events of Matthew 24-25 are occurring.





Another possibility is that Jesus was giving a prophecy with a ';double fulfillment.'; Some of what He was predicting was going to occur in that generation. Some of what Jesus prophesied fits with what occurred when the Romans destroyed Jerusalem in A.D. 70. Other aspects of Jesus' prophecy, however, did not occur in A.D.70; for example, Matthew 24:29-31. However, this view does not work with Jesus' statement that ';all these things'; will take place in ';this generation.'; Therefore, it is best to understand ';this generation'; as referring to the generation in which the end-times events occur. Essentially, Jesus is saying that the end times will happen quickly. This concept is echoed in many other Scriptures (Matthew 24:22; Mark 13:20; Revelation 3:11; 22:7,12,20).





Recommended Resource: Understanding End Times Prophecy by Paul Benware.
John was taken into eternity to view the Day of the Lord before he died in the physical world. How long have you not understood this?





';What did Jesus mean when He said, 'this generation will not pass'?';





The word ';generation'; is the word ';ethnos'; or ethnicity. In other words, this statement of Jesus is a fulfillment of God's prophecy that one Israel is regathered as a nation again in the last days (1948), then they will never be cast out again, nor lose their identity as a people until all is fulfilled.





Scott M - It also says Damascus will be destroyed as well. There are places that will be destroyed via a nuclear exchange in the near future.
It is my personal belief that Jesus did return, and returned within that generation, and rewarded each man according to his works. The righteous were spared from the judgment executed against the wicked, and the wicked were destroyed at the destruction of the Jewish temple in 70 AD.





If someone is expecting a person, in one form or another, to ';return to the earth with angels and armies, etc.';, and we read reports of ';angels and armies'; returning to the earth, I can only surmise that the two events are somehow related.





The historian Josephus records just such an event:





';Besides these, a few days after that feast, on the one and twentieth day of the month Artemisius, [Jyar,] a certain prodigious and incredible phenomenon appeared: I suppose the account of it would seem to be a fable, were it not related by those that saw it, and were not the events that followed it of so considerable a nature as to deserve such signals; for, before sun-setting, chariots and troops of soldiers in their armor were seen running about among the clouds, and surrounding of cities.'; - Josephus, The Jewish War, Book VI
Simply put since it was a false prophecy here is what it says about such things in Jewish teachings:





Deuteronomy 13:1-3





1 If there arise among you a prophet, or a dreamer of dreams, and giveth thee a sign or a wonder,





2 And the sign or the wonder come to pass, whereof he spake unto thee, saying, Let us go after other gods, which thou hast not known, and let us serve them;





3 Thou shalt not hearken unto the words of that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams: for the LORD your God proveth you, to know whether ye love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul.
I'll attempt to answer this question despite the fact you aren't looking for an answer; you're simply here to impose your interpretation of the Bible, like so many religious fanatics.





For one, lots can be lost in traslation. The Bible has been translated so many times in so many ways. One word can mean a number of different things. The word used for generation in Greek could mean a number of different things, much like Maiden and Virgin are represented by the same Hebrew word.





Also, what Jesus said exactly depends on your version of the Bible, and many do exist. Any altering of text can drastically change the meaning, even in changing punctuation (ask anyone involved in law).





So, generation may not mean generation in the way we understand it.





But, lets look further into the scriptures ACCORDING to the King James Version:





Mark 9:1 says ';And he said unto them, ';Verily I say unto you, That there be some of them that stand here, which shall not taste of death, till they have seen the kingdom of God come with power.';





';There be some of them that stand here, which shall not taste of death';. This could easily apply to the future. Like, I could say that some people that stand here will not taste death until God returns to Earth, refering to the general area I am at as ';here';, perhaps refering to my state, county, city, geographical area, etc. Where ever Jesus was at when he made this statement could be in reference to those who would occupy that area in the future. They shall not taste death till they have seen the Kingdom of God. Also note the word ';them';. Not ';you';, but them.





Luke 9:27 says ';But I tell you of a truth, there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God.';





Here, it seems obvious he is refering to people who are there in the present tense who will not die until they see the kingdom of God.





Matthew 24: 34 says, ';Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.';





This also implies a present tense to this generation. So, we have one past tense, and two present tenses applied to the same event as described by Jesus. So, who is right? Was his prophecies not fulfilled, or are they yet to be fulfilled? Depends on which desciple you ask. Depends on what Jesus meant by generation. Depends on what he meant by tasting death. Perhaps the souls of some of the people there would not rest in peace, thus not taste death until God returns to judge them.





Again, what you get out of this depends on your version of the Bible, how it was translated, how certain words were translated in context of what was written, how you define what Jesus may have meant, etc.





This delimma of what this person meant is a common and widespread problem in studying history and laws. Take the First Amendment for instance. Some say it implies seperation of Church and State, meaning no religion in government property whatsoever. Some believe it implies that the government cannot force you to pray anymore than it can force you not to on government property (schools, federal buildings, etc). Eventhough our forefathers meant one exact thing, we must study and debate due to the constitutions deliberate, as well as unintentional, obscurity in some areas.





But, you'll just go on to say, ';Ah, you Christians come up with a billion explainations to make the Bible make sense.'; Do we not do the same with the Constitution? Law? Science? Philosophy? I suggest you base your disbelief in God on your own instinct, knowledge, and feelings, rather than a book. I don't base my faith in God on the Bible because it is flawed, inconsistant, etc because it has been rewritten, re-interpreted, translated, and had texts added and taken away by MAN. THere are many truths to the Bible, but also many inconsistencies, as with the Theory of Evolution, Big Bang Theory, Relativity, Quantum Mechanics, Law, History, etc. Yet, we don't completely discard what we do know and understand simply because flaws and inconsistencies exist.





And try to be a bit more tolerant........... that is supposed to be the upside to Atheism, right? Tolerance to all beliefs? Unlike the religious?

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